Nursing Local Examination Booklet 5, 100 Practice Questions

Situation: A sound scientific basis is essential for quality professional practice.

1. When you assist an individual to do what be cannot normally do in illness, you are using which nursing theory?

a. Henderson
b. Roy
c. Orem
d. Abdellah

2. Like other professions, what is unique in professional nursing?

a. Its compassionate and caring role
b. Its caring role
c. A well-defined body of knowledge and expertise
d. Its environment in nursing research

3. According to Freud, the ego serves this function:

a. Resorvoir of instincts, basics drives and wishes
b. Reality testing
c. Moral arm of the personality
d. Resorvoir of psychic energy

4. Horence Nightingale conceptualizes that nursing is.

a. the act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery
b. assisting the individual sick or well in the performance of those activities contributing to health or its recovery or to peaceful death
c. a humanistic science dedicated to compassionate concern with rehabilitating the sick or disabled.
d. a unique profession, in that it is concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors.

5. Which of the following nursing theorists conceptualizes that all persons strive to achieve self-care.

a. Sister Callista Roy
b. Dorothea Orem
c. Dorothy Johnson
d. Jean Watson

6. Which of the following nursing theorists introduced Transcultural Nursing Model?

a. Imogene King
b. Myra Levine
c. Ida Jean Orlando
d. Madeleine Leininger

7. Which of the following moral theories is based on respect for other humans and belief that relationships are based on mutual trust?

a. Erikson’s theory
b. Kohlberg's theory
c. Freud’s theory
d. Schulman and Mekler’s theory

Stuation: The primary function of the Department of Health is the promotion, protection, preservation or restoration of the health of the people though the provision and delivery of health services.

8. What is the vision of the Department of Health

a. Responsible for the formulation, planning, implemented, and coordination of policies and programs in the field of health
b. Regulates health goods and services
c. Health as Right. Health for all Filipinos by the year 2000 and Health in the hands of the People by the year 2020
d. All of the above

9. DOH should work to make enjoyment of the right to health a reality. What is the mission of DOH?

a. by promoting the means to better health
b. by planning the programs in the field of health
c. by encouraging providers of health goods and services
d none of the above

10. What is the normal temperature of a child who is 1-3 year of age?

a. 39.1 C
b. 35 C
c. 37 C
d. 38 C

11. To convert the body temperature of 38 C to F, what’s the answer?

a. 107.9 F
b. 106.2 F
c. 95 F
d. 100.4 F

12. The Rural Health Doctor orders Dextran 12% 1000 ml within 8 hours for a client. Drop factor is 12 gtt/ml. Solve for the gtt/min.

a. 24-5 gtts/min
b. 25 gtts/min
c. 25.5 gtts/min
d. 26 gtts/min

13. Baby Boy Noel was admitted and the doctor ordered D5NSS 1L x KVO. The nurse should calibrate the IVF to:

a. 5 gtts/min
b. 10 gtts/min
c. 15 gtts/min
d. 20 gtts/min

14. Baby Girl Lee, the neighbor of Baby Boy Noel was brought also to the clinic by her mother for the immunization. What immunization will be given if Baby Girl Lee is 9 months old?

a. BCG
b. Measles
c. DPT
d. Polio 2

15. ORESOL has been introduced to the barangay for dehydration. To prepare for the solution, what will be the desired amount?

a. 2 glasses of water + ½ tbsp. of salt
b. ½ glass of water+1 tbsp. of salt + 3 tbsp. of sugar
c. 2 ½ glasses of :water + 2 tbsp. of salt + ½ tbsp. of sugar
d. 1 glass of water + 1 pinch of salt + 1 tbsp. of sugar

16. What is your initial nursing action before you suction the patient?

a. perform suctioning
b. document relevant data
c. hyperventilate the patient
d. dispose the equipment and ensure availability for the next suction

Situation: Lady Lee, age 5 is brought to the pediatric clinic by her mother, who reports that Lady Lee has a sore throat and fever and will not eat or drink. The physician diagnosis epiglottitis.

17. Which symptoms are associated with epiglottitis?

a. Dyspnea. restlessness, hoarseness and moaning
b. Leaning forward, anxiety, drooling, and a muffled voice
c. Crouching, leaning with hands stretched out in back, and extended neck
d. Ruddy complexion, distended neck veins, and knee-chest position

18. The nurse's first action when caring for Lady Lee should be to:

a. Obtain a tracheostomy set and notify the physician
b. Begin respiratory precautions immediately
c. Obtain I. V. and oxygen equipment
d. Obtain a cardiac monitor and an emergency equipment cart

19. Tracheostomy is an opening through the neck into the trachea through which an indwelling tube maybe inserted which of the following is not a part of tracheostomy set?

a. cannula
b. respirator
c. obturator
d. cuff

20. Hand washing is important in every setting including hospitals. Which of the following is inappropriate during hand washing when observing a sterile technique.

a. Hold the hands higher than the elbows during hand wash
b. Maintaining the hands uppermost when applying soap
c. After washing and rinsing, use a towel to dry one hand thoroughly in a rotating motion from the elbow to the fingers
d. Let the running water run from the fingertips to the elbows

Situation: A place in Brgy. Canla has a common cause of Iodine deficiency where their main products are "Goitrogenics."

21. Which of the following are considered goitrogenics?

a. mandarins
b. kangkong
c. tomato
d. cassava

22. Which of the following are rich source of Iodine?

a. talaba
b. liver
c. lean meat
d. gizzard

Situation: Larry was admitted at Manila Doctor's Hospital because of a second-degree burn wound.

23. Before debriding a second-degree burn wound in the left lower leg, the nurse should do which of the following?

a. Apply Lindane (Kwell) to the affected area
b. Medicate the client with narcotic analgesic
c. Administer acylovir (Zovirax) IV
d. Apply a topical antimicrobial ointment

24. Larry’s anterior trunk, both front upper extremities, both lower extremities sustained second and third degree burn. Estimate the total percentage of body surface area burned using the Rule of Nines.

a. 60%
b. 63%
c. 62%
d. 61%

25. According to Orem's Mode!, which nursing intervention would you render to a one hour post-operative patient?

a. Universal
b. Supportive-educative
c. Wholly compensatory
d. Partially compensatory

26. What area of CHN bag is considered sterile?

a. outside
b. sheath
c. inside
d. sides

Situation: These are nutritional needs of the mother during her pregnancy.

27. Nancy who just delivered a baby boy works as an executive for a big company. Which of these should the nurse first encourage?

a. Mixed feeding
b. Bottle feeding
c. Leave the baby in the nursery
d. Breastfeeding

Situation: Mr. Reyes, 59 years old is a frequent visitor of Lions Club. Lately, he became inefficient with his work and complaining of dizziness.

28. You stressed to him and to the finally the importance of the following food that will help in the production of RBC, EXCEPT:

a. kangkong
b. egg yolk
c. broccoli
d. ampalaya

29.500 ml of blood was ordered for his blood transfusion. Your nursing responsibility before the start of blood transfusion is:

a. check the amount of blood available
b. check the label of the bottle with blood
c. check if Benadryl is ordered for injection
d. check the vital signs

30. Your health teaching to his family is to serve food rich In Iron and this is:

a. egg yolk
b. ampalaya
c. liver
d. lean meat

Situation: The following questions pertain to the nurse and responsibilities.

31. Concerned with the care of school-children, the nurse does the following.
EXCEPT:

a. provides for a safe environment
b. detects, diagnose, and treats children with health problems
c. identifies and refers children with eye problems
d. conducts health education classes

32. An important reason why erasures In the patient's chart should be avoided is:

a. chart would look dirty and reflects, the nurse personality
b. recording maybe illegible
c. chart is a legal document
d. chartings are essential for endorsement and follow-up care of patient

Situation: This pertains to human anatomy and physiology.

33. The principal factor-causing vaginal pH to be acidic:

a. Action of Doderlein's bacillus
b. Cervical mucus changes
c. Secretions from Skene's glands
d. Secretions from the Bartholin’s glands

Situation: In one of your conference with the midwives, you answered the question pertaining to computation and presentation of statistical data at the Rural' Health Unit. Some of the questions are the following among others.

34. The following measures is used as a numerator to capture for the infant mortality rate:

a. Total number of deaths from maternal causes in same year
b. Total number of registered live births of a given year
c. Total number of deaths less than 1 year of age registered in same calendar year
d. Total number of deaths registered in same calendar year

35. In order to present the frequency of occurrence of new cases of PNA In the municipality you have to compute for the:

a. prevalence rate
b. case fatality rate
c. proportionate mortality rate
d. incidence rate

Situation: Nursing as a profession benefits from the use of nursing diagnosis process in professional clinical practice.

36. The most important values of the use of nursing diagnosis in care planning is:

a. highlights your critical thinking and decision-making
b. focuses in cause of the illness
c. helps to define what is health
d. identifies what the nurse can prescribe

Situation: The following questions pertain to nursing care of child with cardiovascular, disorders.

37. Amy, 6 years old, Is admitted with an impression of rheumatic fever. To help establish the diagnosis of rheumatic fever, which of these questions should the nurse ask?

a. Did Amy travel abroad recently?
b. Did Amy remark of fatigability?
c. Did Amy have sore throat recently?
d. Did Amy have viral infections?

38. Nurse Jo reviews the laboratory data of Amy. Of these data, one would be supportive of a diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

a. low hematocrit
b. increased leukocyte count
c. high erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. elevated antibody level

39. Bob who is diagnosed with rheumatic fever is prescribed with Aspirin. The purpose of this medication is to:

a. reduce inflammation
b. relieve anxiety
c. control headache
d. decrease fever

Situation: Professional nursing practice primarily aims to promote health and prevent illness.

40. The meet basic goal of health promotion is:

a. healthy
b. absence of disease
c. no illness
d. wellness

41. You are a factory nurse in a bottling industry. What priority health promotion program can you undertake?

a. Physical fitness program
b. Accident prevention program
c. Formulating work strategy
d. Relaxation exercises

Situation: Your 13 year old daughter tells you that she is having her menarche and that she fees awful. To comfort her, you would explain the menstrual cycle.

42. You start by defining menstruation is:

a. Expelling of the unfertilized egg which causes the bleeding
b. Soughing off the perimetrium
c. Sign of an aborted pregnancy
d. Monthly sloughing off of the uterine tiring that had been prepared to nurture a fertilized egg.

43. Ovulation usually occurs on the:

a. 28th day of a 28 day menstrual cycle
b. 1st week of a 28 day menstrual cycle
c. last week of a 28 day menstrual cycle
d. 14th ay of a 28 day menstrual cycle

44. The secretory phase is characterized by the secretion or storage nutrients, glycogen and mucin. This is due to the action of:

a. prolactin
b. estrogen
c. androgen
d. progesterone

45. To allay the fears of your daughter regarding losing too much blood during menses, you would tell her that the average blood lost per cycle is:

a. 80ml
b. lOOml
c. 120 ml
d. 30 ml

Situation: Mrs. Mia Sandoval, a newly-married couple, plan to start a family planning clinic to choose the most appropriate contraceptive method for them:

46. Mrs. Sandoval is Interested in IUD. The nurse tells her that its insertion is usually done at this period of the menstrual cycle:

a. 7th to 10th days
b. 18th to 20th days
c. 12th to 16th days
d. 1st 104th days

47. Upon further discussion, the nurse talks about the diaphragm which after intercourse must be kept in place for:

a. 6-8 hours
b. 12-24 hours
c. 11-20 hours
d. 9-10 hours

48. Mrs. Sandoval talks about friend's infertility problem that was prescribed with Clomid by her physician. The nurse informs her that a side effect of this medication may be:

a. multiple gestation
b. headache
c. transitory depression
d. hypertension

Situation: The following pertains to some concepts and principles of community health nursing (CHN) that a nurse must apply in carrying out CHN services.

49. Community health Nursing is a service that is provided in an environment that is constantly changing. This implied that the community health nurse to be able to provide relevant services.

a. must involve other disciplines In carrying out health care services in various settings
b. must provide a service that is community-based
c. must provide a service that is integrated and comprehensive
d. must update her knowledge on the current and evolving characteristics of health care system

50. Promotion of health is a major responsibility of the CHN, This refers to;

a. Activities that seek to protect clients from potential or actual health threats and their harmful consequences
b. Activities directed toward developing the resources of clients that maintain or enhance well-being
c. Activities directed toward decreasing the probability of specific illness or dysfunctions in individuals
d. Activities aimed to prevent to spread of microorganisms to Individual

Situation: The public health nurse performs varied functions and activities in her place of work.

51. In dealing with a primigravida who is afraid of childbirth due to her beliefs and misconceptions. The first thing that the nurses should do is:

a. help woman recognize the sign of abnormalities in pregnancy to enable her to report to the midwife
b. identify the beliefs and misconceptions and their source
c. immediately correct the beliefs and misconceptions
d. refer to midwife for regular follow-up visit

52. Kwashiorkor is a condition usually seen among pre- school children. This is characterized by which of the following signs?

a. all these signs
b. retarded growth and hairs
c. loss of appetite
d. edema

53. Vitamin A deficiency will lead to which of the following conditions?

a. high blood pressure
b. swollen face, body and limb
c. inability to see in the dark
d. enlargement of the neck

54. Grace was referred to you by a midwife. In order to determine whether Grace is suffering from severe calorie deficiency, which of the following condition will you take note of?

a. thin, sparse hair
b. an extreme wasting away of fat muscle
c. paleness of the inner side of the lips
d. generalized swelling of the body

Situation: You are the new Public Health Nurse in the Municipality of Pontevedra. This municipality has the following data in 2003:
Population - 30,000
Total infants death - 11
Total number of cases examined for PTB - 200
Total births - 500
All causes -74
Number of confirmed positive of PTB cases - 5

55. You need to gather a lot of data about the community. Which of these can be given least priority?

a. community's belief and practice
b. community s political leadership
c. community's knowledge in health
d. community's way of life

56. You studied the figures of disease and accidents that occurred in Pontevedra for the last 2 years. These figures are referred to as:

a. mortality statistics
b. mortality and morbidity statistics
c. rates and ratios
d. morbidity statistics

57. Which of the following gives a good reflection of the state of health of Pontevedra?

a. maternal morbidity rate
b. age-specific death rate
c. infant mortality rate
d. crude death rate

Situation: In one of your home visits you discovered that Tristan, 2 years old who lives with Mang Tero his lolo is still on bottle feeding. No supplementary feeding given:

58. Supplementary feeding should be started:

a. at the age of 8 -12 months
b. at the age of 8 months
c. not earlier than 2 months but not later than 4 months
d. not earlier than 4 ninths but and later than 6 moths

59. You're Interested to know whether Tristan has signs of malnutrition. Hence, you will:

a. weigh the child and perform physical assessment
b. weigh the child
c. perform a physical assessment
d. refer to physician or nearest health facility

Situation: Atypical teenager, Susan, 17 years old, is in her 3rdyear high school. Besides sports and other school activities, she volunteers for community outreach programs in her school, among them going to the slums of Tondo.

60. Susan wears contact lenses. But she claims that these are so comfortable she forgets to removes them at night. As the school nurse, you caution that she should not sleep with her soft contact lens because they can damage one of these:

a. sciera
b. optic nerve
c. cornea
d. pupil

61. In one of her information- sharing, Susan mentions that her mother was taking diethyistijbestrd (DES) when she was pregnant withjier. The nurse feels that she must suggest 'to Susan one ofthese. \Wch os correct?

a. "I wiH take your Pap smear for laboratory exams."
b. "Do nd use the pi!! for contraception."
c. "Please see a gynecologist as soon as possible."
d. "Avoid us! ng lampoons during menstruation."

Situation: Miss Go is a clinical instructor in Community Health Nursing discussing about vital statistics, epidemiology and laws affecting Public Health and practice of Community Health Nursing.

62. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects disability or deaths. This is:

a. Epidemiology
b. Statistics
c. Public Health
d. Community Health Nursing

63. The Republic Act that refers to the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:

a. R.A 2382
b. R.A 1062
c. R.A 7305
d. R.A 6425

64. Republic Act 7164 known as the "Philippine Nursing Act of 1991" embodies the regulation of Practice of Nursing in the Philippines. A member of the Board of Nursing must be:

a. Citizen of the Philippines
b. RN and holder of Master's Degree
c. 10 years of continuous practice of the profession
d. All of the above

Situation: Mr. Laurel, a public nurse is conducting community class in Brgy. Kawayan about pulmonary tuberculosis.

65. Category 3 treatment regimen for TB is prescribed to:

a. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is positive
b. Previously treated patients who are on relapse
c. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is serum-negative for 3x and a chest x-ray of PTB minimal
d. Previously treated patients who are failures

66. What TB drug is net given to children under age 6 who are too young to report visual disturbances?

a. INH
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. PZA

67. Category treatment regimen for TB Is prescribed. This is given:

a. 2 months Intensive phase, 4 months maintenance phase
b. 3 months intensive phase, 5 months maintenance phase
c. 2 months intense phase, 2 months maintenance phase
d. 3 months Intensive phase,6 months maintenance phase

Situation: Cancer ranks third in leading cause of morbidity and mortality in the Philippines. Early detection Increases the survival rate of those afflicted. You are a nurse in a cancer-prevention and screening clinic and are for health education.

68. The following are warning signs of cancer. Which one is not?

a. Change In bladder and bowel habits
b. Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing
c. Weight gain
d. Nagging cough or hoarseness

69. Monthly examination (BSE) can help in early detection of breast CA. When do you perform BSE?

a. once a month after menstruation
b. once a month before menstruation
c. every ether month after menstruation
d. every other month before menstruation

70. There are several risk factors with developing cancer. The following are risk factors of cancer, except:

a. age
b. race
c. ordinal petition In the family
d. lifestyle

71. A form of cancer therapy wherein a beam of high-energy electromagnetic radiation desires the cancer ceils?

a. surgery
b. radiation therapy
c. chemotherapy
d. pallitive treatment

Situation: Mental health covers the psychosocial concerns of daily living covering the stages of life. Efforts to train manpower have been done by the government through the National Mental Health Programs.

72. Mental health is defined as:

a. A disturbance in a person's thoughts, feelings and behavior.
b. A state of well-being where a person can realize his or her own abilities, to cope with the normal stresses of life and work productively.
c. A science which deals with measures employed to promote mental health, to reduce the incidence of mental illness through preservation and early treatment.
d. is concerned with the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, and the nursing care of patients during mental illness and rehabilitation.

73. The following are nursing responsibilities in mental health promotion except:

a. Participate in the promotion of mental health among families and the community
b. Help people in the community understand basic emotional needs
c. Teach parents the Importance of providing emotional support to their children
d. Be aware of the potential causes of breakdown and when necessary take possible preventive action

74. A nurse works in a mental health facility that a therapeutic community (milieu) to client. Which of the following statements describes the nurse's role in this facility?

a. Primary caregiver
b. Member of the milieu
c. Supervision more than counseling
d. Distinctly seperate from the psychiatrist

75. A community mental health nurse visits a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. When she arrives at his house, he calls for Satan, shouts at her, and tells her to back away. Which of the following interventions has priority?

a. use his phone and call the police
b. remain safe by leaving the house
c. talk to him In a calm voice to reduce his agitation
d. remind him who she is and that she has nothing to fear

Situation: Mrs. Madonna, 46 years old, is brought to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and severe epigastric pain. Initial care includes insertion of nasogastric tube (NGT).

76. Which of the following steps should the nurse take first when preparing to insert a nasogastric tube?

a. Wash hands
b. Apply sterile gloves
c. Apply a mask and gown
d. Open ail necessary kits and tubing

77. The nurse on duty is inserting a nasogastric tube. Mr. Javier begins to gag. Which actions should the nurse take?

a. Remove the inserted tube and notify the physician
b. Stop the insertion, allow the client to rest, then continue inserting the tube
c. Encourage the client to take deep breaths through the mouth while the tube is being inserted
d. Pause until the gagging stops, tell the client to take a few sips of water and swallow as the tube is inserted.

78. Which of the following steps, if taken by the nurse after insertion of nasogastric tube could harm Mr. Javier.

a. Affix the nasogastric tube to the nose with tape
b. Check tube placement by aspirating stomach contents using a piston syringe
c. Check tube placement by instilling 100ml of water into the tube to check for stomach filling
d. Document in the chart the insertion, method used to check tube placement, and client's response to the procedure

79. Which of the following drug forms can be administered through a nasogastric tube?

a. Enteric
b. Oral
c. Parenteral
d. Sublingual

Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient's chart is a legal responsibility.

80. A nurse gives the wrong medication to a client another nurse employed by the hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communications?

a. Incident report
b. Oral report from the nurse
c. Copy of the medication Kardex
d. Order changed signed by the physician

81. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of Informed consent can lead to which of the following changes?

a. Fraud
b. Harassment
c. Assault and battery
d. Beach of confidentiality

82. Which of the following characteristics of the client goal in the plan of care is correct?

a. Nurse-focused, flexible, measurable and realistic
b. Client-focused, flexible, realistic and measurable
c. Nurse-focused, time-limited, realistic, and measurable
d. Client-focused, time-limited, realistic, and measurable

83. A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following time is ideal to begin discharge planning?

a. At the time of admission
b. The day before discharge
c. After the acute episode is resolved
d. When the discharge order is written

84. A nurse is witnessing consent from a client before a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following factors is a component of informed consent ?

a. Freedom from coercion
b. Durable power of attorney
c. Private insurance coverage
d. Disclosure of previous answers given by the client

85. Implementation of plan of action is done through:

a. independent and independent measure
b. dependent and independent measure
c. dependent and Interdependent measure
d. none of the above

86. Which of the following has the greatest effect on personal hygiene?

a. Culture, knowledge, and social influences
b. Occupation, physical environment and genetics
c. Self awareness, time of day, and personnel available for assistance
d. Socio-economic status, health and age

87. The most important nursing intervention to correct dryness is:

a. Avoid bathing patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician
b. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist and suggest that the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear.
c. Consult the dietician about increasing the patient's fat intake, and necessary measures to prevent infection.
d. Encourage the patient to increase hid fluid intake, use non-irritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas.

Situation: The following questions are concerned with nutrition.

88. Which one is not a function of calcium

a. Bone and teeth mineralization
b. Absorption of iron and the formation of hgb
c. Blood clothing
d. Muscle relaxation and contraction

89. Xerophthalmia is characterized by:

a. Tunnel vision
b. Floaters
c. Night blindness
d. Window vision

90. A deficiency in protein leads to:

a. Kwashiorkor
b. Ricketts
c. Beri-beri
d. Hemorrhage

91. Nutrients are classified according to their structures. Which among these is not a micronutrient?

a. Vitamin A
b. Iron
c. Iodine
d. Amino acids

92. What mineral works with Vitamin E to protect body compounds from oxidation?

a. Sodium
b. Selenium
c. Zinc
d. Manganese

Situation: Osteoporosis is considered a major health and economic problem. One in every four women over age 50 is believed to have this disease.

93. What is the main reason why Asian women are more in developing osteoporosis than African-American women?

a. There are more post menopausal aged Asian women
b. Banes of Asian women are 30-40% less dense than that of African-American women
c. African-American women eat more compared to Asian women
d. Asian women have lesser bone mass compared to African-American women

94. There are factors that predispose an individual for osteoporosis. What factor is least associated with the disease?

a. Decreased level of oxygen
b. Calcium deficiency
c. Exposure to sunlight
d. Lack of exercise

95. Women over 50 years are very much at risk for fractures. Where Is the most common site of fractures to osteoporosis?

a. femur
b. forearm
c. vertebrae
d. hips

Situation: Mrs. M. has been given a copy of her diet. He consulted you about her prescribed diet.

96. Which of the following diseases results from niacin deficiency?

a. diabetes
b. beriberi
c. pellagra
d. megaloblastjc anemia

97. He also asked about Vitamin E. The richest source of Vitamin E is:

a. vegetable oil
b. milk
c. fish
d. cereals

98. The most common vitamin deficiency seen in alcoholics is:

a. Thiamne
b. Riboflavin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Pantothenic acid

Situation: Mr. S., a patient in MS ward, wants to increase his Vitamin C intake. He also asks you several questions about nutrition.

99. Which of the following foods is not well-known source of Vitamin C?

a. tomatoes
b. grapefruits
c. green and yellow vegetables
d. oranges

100. Vitamin C deficiency is characterized by the following except:

a. redness and edema of the gums
b. pinpoint peripheral hemorrhages
c. pernicious anemia
d. bones that fracture easily

Nursing Local Examination Booklet 4, 100 Practice Questions

1. A newly graduate nursing student applied at the PRC to take the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination. To qualify she must possess the following:
1. age must be 21 years old
2. a Filipino citizen
3. graduated from a recognized College of Nursing
4. with good health and with good moral character

a. 1, 2,and 4
b. 1,2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1,3, and 4

2. In order for the examinee to pass the Philippine Nurses Licensure examination, she must obtain an average of:
1. general average rating of 74.9% that could be round off into 75%
2. genera! average rating of 75% and above
3. rating not below 69% in any subjects
4. rating not below 60% in any subjects

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4

3. Persons who committed crimes by indirect participation such as assisting in its consummation can be accused of being:

a. an accessory
b. a principal
c. a witness
d. both A and C

4. According to the Annotated Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, the Licensure Members of the Board of Nursing is composed of:

a. A chairperson and six member’s
b. A chairperson and three members
c. Seven members only
d. A chairperson and five members

5. A battery is:

a. An unconsented touching of another person
b. An act that puts the victim in fear of harm to himself
c. Considered only when a harm occurs to the person touched
d. All of the above

6. Miss Montessa applied for the Philippine Nurses' Board Examination. To qualify she must posses the following:
1. age 21 years old
2. Filipino citizenship
3. graduated from recognized college of nursing
4. good health and good moral character

a. 1 and 2
b. 1,3, and 4
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 2, 3, and 4

7. A staff nurse must:
1. have at least 2 years experience
2. be single
3. be a Filipino citizen
4. be currently license to practice professional nursing

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

8. Nurses abroad are very in-demand nowadays. While opportunities may be better abroad, she must serve the country for:

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 6 months
d. as long as she likes '
9. The refusal issue a certificate of registration for reasons cited in RA 877 as amended by RA 4704 rests on:

a. Philippine Association of Board Examiners
b. Board of Nursing
c. Professional Regulation Commission ;
d. Legal Division, PRC

10. The law which provides for the use of generic terminology in the promotion, prescription, and dispensing of drugs:

a. RA4226
b. RA6675
c. RA 7164
d. RA 7877

11. The most effective nursing intervention for a severely anxious client who is pacing vigorously would be to:

a. Instruct her to sit down and quit pacing
b. Place her in bed to reduce stimuli and allow rest
c. Allow her to walk until she becomes physically tired
d. Give her PRN medication and walk with her at a gradually slowing pace

12. Which of the following is accurate about benzodiazepines: "

a. It act on the cause of diagnosis
b. Used anesthetics, anticonvulsants, and muscle relaxants
c. Has less problem of dependence and withdrawal
d. Started at a high dose then gradually decreased

13. The nurse has been interviewing a client who has not been able to discuss any feelings. This day, 5 minutes before the time is over, the client begins to talk about important feelings. The intervention is to:

a. Go over the agreed-upon time, as the client is finally able to discuss important feelings.
b. Tell the client that it is time to end the session now, but another nurse will discuss his feelings with him.
c. Set at extra meeting time a little later to discuss these feelings.
d. End just as agreed, but tell the client these are very important feelings and he can continue tomorrow.

14. ln working with a depressed client, the nurse should understand that depression is most directly related to a person's:

a. Experiencing poor interpersonal relationships with other.
b. Remembering his traumatic childhood.
c. Having experienced a sense of loss.
d. Stage in life.

15. Three days after admission for depression, a 54-year-old female client approaches the nurse and says; "I know I have cancer of the uterus. Can't you let me stay in bed and have some peace before I die?" In responding, the nurse must keep in mind that:

a. The client must be post-menopausal
b. Thoughts of disease are common in depressed clients.
c. Clients suffering from depression can be demanding, making many request of the nurse.
d. Antidepressant medications frequently cause vaginal spotting.

16 A client makes a suicide attempt on the evening shift. The staff intervenes in time to prevent harm. In assessing the situation, the most important rationale for the staff to discuss the incident is that:

a. They need to reenact the attempt so that they understand exactly what happened.
b. The staff needs to file an incident report so that the hospital administration is kept informed.
c. The staff needs to discuss the client's behavior to determine what cues, in his behavior might have warned them that he was contemplating suicide.
d. Because the client made one suicide attempt, there is high probability he will make a second .attempt in the immediate future

17.A client with the diagnosis of manic episode is racing around the psychiatric unit trying to organize games with the clients. An appropriate nursing intervention is to:

a. Have the client play Ping-Pong.
b. Suggest video exercises with the other clients.
c. Take the client outside for a walk.
d. Do nothing, as organizing a game is considered therapeutic.

18. The primary nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client admitted with pneumonia. When should the nurse begin discharge planning for this client?

a. The day after discharge
b. When the client's condition is stabilized
c. At the admission time
d. When the physician writes the discharge order

19. A nurse enters a client's roams and the client is demanding release from the hospital. Tile nurse renews the client's record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder and that the admission was voluntary. Which of the following actions will the nurse take?

a. Tell the client that discharge is not possible at this time.
b. Call the client's family
c. Contact the physician
d. Persuade the client to stay a few more days

20.When teaching a patient who has a diagnosis of schizophrenia about successful independent living in the community, a nurse should encourage the patient to:

a. Establish a structured daily routine
b. Spend time alone
c. Ran a program of self-fulfillment
d. Discontinue medication when symptoms disappear

21. A patient who has a borderline personality disorder praise one nurse and asserts that all other staff members are terrible. The praised nurse should respond by:

a. Showing appreciation for the patient's positive evaluation
b. Providing reassuring information about the patient's psychological integrity
c. Maintaining objectivity regarding the patient's remarks
d. Conveying acceptance of the patient's need for a false belief system

22. The physician orders flouxetine (Prozac) orally every morning for a 72-year-dd a client with depression. The nurse would expect the physician to order which of the following dosages for this client?

a. 0.5 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 25 mg
d. 30 mg

23. A client who is depressed states, "I am an awful person. Everything about me is bad. I can't do anything right." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

a. "Everybody around here likes you."
b. "I can see many good qualities about you." .
c. "Let's discuss what you haw done correctly."
d. "You were able to bathe daily."

24. The nurse denies the request of a dient with major depression and psychotic features, admitted involuntarily, to leave the hospital because commitment papers have been initiated by the physician. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a criterion for the client to be legally committable?

a. Evidence of psychosis
b. Being gravely disabled
c. Risk of harm to self or others
d. Diagnosis of mental illness

25.When preparing a teaching plan for a client about imipranine (Tofranil), which of the following substances will the nurse tell the client to avoid while taking the .medication?

a. Caffeinated coffee
b. Sunscreen
c. Alcohol
d. Artificial tears

26. A client with bipolar behavior manic phase is exhibiting euphoria, hyperactivlty, and distractibility. He is unable to remain seated during mealtime Song enough to eat adequately. Which of the following "finger foods" would most benefit this client?

a. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich
b. Cheeseburger
c. tee cream cone
d. Cut-up vegetables

27. A client with acute mania has been taking lithium (Lithium Carbonate) 600 mg PO three times daily for 14 days. The nurse analyzes the client's serum lithium level, noting that it is therapeutic when the level is within which of the following ranges?

a. 0.5 to 1.5mEq/L
b. 1.6to2.5mEq/L
c. 2.6 to 3.2 mEq/L
d. 3.3 to 4.0 rnEq/L

28. A patient who has begun taking a tricyclic antidepressant is given instructions regarding its use. Which of the following' comments would indicate that the patient understands the information?

a. "I like active exercise, but I won't be able to do it while I'm on this medication."
b. "This medicine will make my ears ring, but I guess i can tolerate that."
c. "I won't eat cheese if one of my visitors bring me some."
d. "I don't feel any better, but I've only been taking the medicine for a week."

29. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a patient with Sow back pain. The desired therapeutic action of valiurn in this situation is to:

a. Reduce anxiety levels
b. Eliminate pain sensation
c. Suppress the inflammatory process
d. Lessen muscle spasticity

30. A patient is brought to the psychiatric unit. Which of the following activities the registered nurse rather than the licensed practical nurse would perform?

a. Administering a stat dose of lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg intramuscularity (IM)
b. Admitting the patient to the psychiatric unit
c. Asking the patient whether he hears voices other people do not hear
d. Drawing a blood sample for a lithium level

31. A client asks to be discharged from the health care facility against medical advice (AMA). What should the nurse do?

a. Prevent the client from leaving
b. Notify the physician
c. Have the client sign an AMA form
d. Call a security guard to help detain the client

32. What is the most common tort filed against health care providers by clients?

a. Malpractice
b. Negligence
c. Assault
d. Battery

33. A nurse is counseling a parent whose 11-year-old child has attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The parent reports that the child is disruptive at home. Which of the approaches should the nurse suggest that the parent take?

a. Confine the child to the bedroom
b. Establish a specific schedule for activities
c. Explain to the child why the behavior is disturbing
d. Vary the methods by which rewards are given

34. The physician prescribes digoxin 4mg IV. for a client In rapid atrial fibrillation, How should the nurse proceed?

a. Assess the client's apical rate, then administer the dose.
b. Administer 0.4 mg I.V. because the physician most likely meant to write that dosage
c. Question the physician about that order.
d. Administer the dose, then monitor the client closely.

35. A nurse administers a unit of blood to a client without receiving informed consent. Performing a procedure, such as administering blood products, without receiving informed consent can lead to which of the following charges?

a. Assault and battery
b. Fraud
c. Breach of confidentiality
d. Harassment

36. A 32-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric unit for evaluation after terrorizing her co-worker with a knife. She is verbally .abusive. One afternoon, she starts hitting another female patient without any apparent provocation. The other patient is removed from her presence. Which of the following statements by the nurse would be appropriate handling of the patient's behavior?

a. "Why did you hit that patient?"
b. "You will have to stay in the seclusion room to keep you away from other patients."
c. "Hitting others is dangerous. I am not going to allow you to repeat this behavior."
d. "I am going to discuss your behavior with other patients at the next ward meeting." .

37. A patient refuses to sit in a chair offered by the nurse during a ward meeting. The patient claims that, "They are trying to destroy me. They have planted a bomb under this chair." He accuses the nurse as being "one of them." Which of the following approaches would be most helpful in dealing with patient's delusional system?

a. Sit on the chair to prove that the chair is safe.
b. Tell the patient, "No one is trying to destroy you and I am certainly not one of those who you think want to kill you."
c. Allow the patient to select his/her own chair.
d. Ask the patient, "Why do you think anyone would plot to destroy you."

38. When a pediatric nurse tries to take an admission history on a 3-year-old, the child's mother burst into tears and cannot answer any questions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a. Continue to take the history.
b. Encourage the mother to verbalize her fears concerning her child's illness.
c. Ask the mother to assist in the admission physical assessment.
d. Ask the mother to join her husband in the waiting room.

39. A patient who is diagnosed with an eating disorder describes herseif as "a very fat person." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be MOST appropriate?

a. "You don't look fat at all."
b "Why do you say you are fat?"
c. "I don't understand why you think you are fat."
d. "You seem to think you are fat but \ see you as very thin."

40. During an acute psychotic episode, patients can become frightened of their own ^ bizarre sensory experiences. They also fear losing control over their own impulses. Which of the following nursing interventions would help a patient to feel less frightened?

a. Assure the patient that his/her sensory experiences wilt disappear, in no time.
b. Let the patient know that the staff will assist him/her in maintaining control.
c. Keep the patient in a well-lighted; stimulating environment at all times.
d. Keep potentially harmful objects out of patient's reach.

41.When developing the plan of care for a client receiving haloperidol; which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate administering if the client developed extrapyramidat sidejeffiects?

a. Lorazepam (Ativan)
b. Benztripine mesylate (Cogentin)
c. Paroxetine (Paxil)
d. Olanzapine (Zyprexia)

42. Nursing Licensure and Practice are regulated by:

a. Nursing Practice Law
b. Board of Nursing
c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. All of the above

43. While documenting on a client's patient care flow sheet the nurse notices that she made a mistake? How-should the nurse proceed?

a. Use correction fluid and continue to document
b. Draw a single line through the entry
c. Cross out error completely
d. Erase error

44. Which of the following would be most critical when caring for a client who is experiencing delirium?

a. Controlling behavior symptoms with low-dose psychotropics.
b. Correcting the underlying causative condition or illness.
c. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation.
d. Decreasing or discounting any nonessential medications

45.A client with panic disorder should be monitored for the existence of which of the following other psychosocial problems?

a. Attention deficit hyperacidity disorder (ADHD)
b. Developmental disability
c. Dissociative behavior
d. Substance abuse

46. Which of the following nursing interventions is given priority in a care plan for a person having panic disorder?

a. Tell the client to take deep breaths.
b. Have the client talk about the anxiety.
c. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
d. Ask the client about the cause of the attack.

47. Which of the following interventions should the nurse initially implement when caring for a client with panic disorder?

a. Make the client role-play the panic attack.
b. Assist the client to develop an exercise program.
c. Teach the client to identify cognitive distortions.
d. Teach the client to identify sources of anxiety.

48. Which of the following statements is typical of a client with social phobia?

a. "Without people around, I just feel so lost."
b. "There is nothing wrong with my behavior."
c "I like to be the center of attention."
d. "I knew I can’t accept that award for my brother."

49. Which of the following behavior modification techniques is useful in the treatment of the phobias?

a. Aversion therapy
b. Irritation or modeling
c. Positive reinforcement
d. Systematic desensitization

50.A client suspected of haying a posttraumatic stress disorder should assessed for which of the following problems?

a. Eating disorder
b. Schizophrenia
c. Suicide
d. "Sundown" syndrome

51. Which of the following psychological symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a hospitalized client who is the only survivor of a train accident?

a. Denial
b. Indifference
c. Perfectionism
d. Trust

52. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of survivor guilt?

a. "I think I can see the purpose of my survival”
b. "I can't help but feel that everything is their fault."
c. "I new understand why I'm not able to forgive myself."
d. "I wish I could stop sabotaging my family relationships"

53. The effectiveness of monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor drug therapy in a client with posttraumatic stress disorder can be demonstrated by which of the following client self-reports?

a. "I'm sleeping better and don’t have nightmares”
b. "I'm not losing my temper as much."
c. "I've lost my craving for alcohol."
d. "I've lost my phobia for water."

54. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect when talking about school to a child diagnosed with a generalized anxiety disorder?

a. The child has been fighting with peers for the past month.
b. The child can't stop lying to parents and teachers.
c. The child has gained 15 pounds in the past month.
d. The child expresses concerns about grades.

55. A 42-year-old client admitted with an acute myocardial infarction asks to see his chart. What should the nurse do first?

a. Allow the client to view his chart
b. Contact the supervisor and physician for approval
c. Ask the client if he has concerns about his care
d. Tell the client that he isn't permitted to view his chart.

56. A staff nurse influences the behaviors of her colleagues by guiding and encouraging them. She's an excellent role model but has no formal authority over her peers. This nurse is demonstrating characteristics of which of the following roles?

a. Manager
b. Autocrat
c. Leader
d. Authority

57. A client with paranoid personality disorder tells a nurse of his decision to stop talking to his wife. Which of the following areas should be assessed?

a. The client's doubts about the partner's loyalty.
b. The client's need to be alone and have time for self.
c. The client's decision to separate from the marital partner.
d. The client's fears about becoming too much like the partner.

58. The wife of the client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder tells the client she wants a divorce. When discussing this situation with the couple, which of the following factors would help the nurse form a care plan for this couple?

a. Denied grief
b. Intense jealousy
c. Exploitation of others
d. Self-destructive tendencies

59. The nurse manager is concerned because she received many time-off requests from her staff for the upcoming holiday season. She has come up with several possible solutions to the staffing dilemma and has scheduled a staff meeting to present ideas to the staff. Which management style is this manager demonstrating?

a. Participative
b. Democratic
c. Autocratic
d. Laissez-faire

60. Which of the following short-term goals for a client with an antisocial personality disorder and a history of polysubstance abuse?

a. Develop goals for personal improvement.
b. Identify situations that are out of the client's control.
c. Encourage the client to identify traumatic life events.
d. Learn to express feelings in a nondestructive manner.

61. Which of the following goals is most appropriate for a client with antisocial personality disorder with a high risk .for violence directed at others?

a. The client will discuss the desire to hurt others rather than act.
b. The client will be given something to destroy to displace the anger.
c. The client will develop a list of resources to use when anger escalates.
d. The client will understand the difference between anger and physical symptoms.

62. A registered nurse who works in the preoperative area of the operating room notices that a client is scheduled for a partial mastectomy and axillary lymph node removal the following week. The nurse should make sure, that the client is well educated about her surgery by:

a. taking with the nursing staff at the physician's office to find out what the client has been taught and her level of understanding
b. making sure that the post-anesthesia recovery unit nurses know what to teach the patient before discharge
c. providing all of the preoperative teaching before surgery
d. having the post-operative nurses teach the patient because she'll be too anxious before surgery

63. A new nurse-manager is trying to determine the best way to implement client teaching in her outpatient surgical center. She decides to gather data from other surgical centers and compare their teaching methods to her center's methods. Which quality improvement process is she utilizing?

a. Benchmarking
b. Risk management
c. Performance improvement
d. Quality management

64. Which of the following characteristics or situations is indicated when a client with borderline personality disorders has a crisis?

a. Antisocial behavior
b. Suspicious behavior
c. Relationship problems
d. Auditory hallucinations

65. A schizophrenic client tells his primary nurse that he's scheduled to meet the King of Samoa at a special time, making it impossible for the client to leave his room for dinner. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. "It's meal time. Let's go so you can eat."
b. "The King of Samoa told me to take you to dinner”
c. "Your physician expects you to follow the unit's schedule."
d. "People who don't eat, on this unit aren't being cooperative."

66.A Client diagnosed with schizophrenia several years ago tells the nurse that he feels "very sad." The nurse observes that he's smiling when he says it. Which of the following terms best describes the nurse's observation?

a. Inappropriate affect
b. Extrapyramidal
c. Insight
d. Inappropriate mood

67. Which of the following conditions or characteristics is related to the cluster of symptoms associated with disorganized schizophrenia?

a. Odd beliefs
b. Flat affect
c. Waxy flexibility
d. Systematized delusions

68. A client approaches a nurse and tells her that he hears a voice telling him that he's evil and deserves to die. Which of the following terms describes the client's perception?

a. Delusion
b. Disorganized speech
c. Hallucinations
d. Idea of reference

69. Which of the following numbers of members in a therapy group is ideal?

a. 1 to 4
b. 4 to 7
c. 7 to 10
d. 10-to15

70. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with acute schizophrenic reaction?

a. Social isolation related to impaired ability to trust
b. Impaired mobility related to fear of hostile impulses
c. Disturbed steep patterns related to impaired thinking ability
d. Risk for other-directed violence related to perceptual distortions

71. A client tells a nurse voices are telling him to do "terrible things." Which of the following actions is part of the initial therapy?

a. Find out what the voices are telling him.
b. Let him go to his room to decrease his anxiety.
c. Begin talking to the client about an unrelated topic.
d. Tell the client the voices aren't real.

72. A client is preoccupied with his belief that the CIA has been planning to take him away to save the agency from his influence. These delusions are a defense against which of the following underlying feelings?

a. Aggression
b. Guilt
c. Inferiority
d. Persecution

73.1n preparation for discharge, a client diagnosed with schizophrenia was taught self-symptom management as part of a relapse prevention program. Which of the following statements indicates a client understands symptom monitoring?

a. "When I hear voices, I become afraid I’ll relapse."
b. "My parents aren't involved enough to be aware if I begin to relapse."
c. "My family is more protected from stress if J keep them out of my illness process."
d. "When I'm feeling stressed, I go to a quiet room by myself and do imagery."

74. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) for 1 week when a nurse observes that the client's eyeball is fixated on the ceiling. Which of the following specific conditions is the client exhibiting?

a. Akathisia
b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
c. Oculogyric crisis
d. Tardive dyskinesia

75. A client arrives in the emergency room and is assessed by a nurse. The client is staggering, confused, and verbally abusive. The client complaints of a headache from drinking alcohol and is asking for medication. The nurse explains to the - client that the physician will need to perform an assessment prior to the, administration of medication. When the client becomes verbally abusive, the nurse obtains leather restrains and threatens to place the client in the restraints. With which of the following can the client legally charge the nurse as a result of the nursing action?

a. assault
b. battery
c. negligence
d. invasion of privacy

76. A registered nurse arrives at work and is told to report (float) to the intensive care unit (ICU) for the day because the ICU is understaffed and needs additional nurses to care for the clients. The nurse has never worked in the ICU. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

a. Refuse to float to the ICU
b. Call the hospital lawyer
c. Call the nursing supervisor
d. Report to the ICU and identify tasks that can be safely performed

77. A nurse who works on the night shift enters the unit and finds a coworker with a tourniquet wrapped around the upper arm. The coworker is about to insert a needle, attached to a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is which of the following?

a. Call the police
b. Call security
c. Lock the coworker in the medication room until help is obtained
d. Call the nursing supervisor

78. Which of the following interventions is important for a client who engages in sexual act with animals (zoophilia)?

a. Place the client is the seclusion room.
b. Assess triggers that stimulate the behaviors.
c. Have the primary health care provide order and antidepressant medication.
d. Counsel the client not to discuss his sexual behaviors with anyone.

79. A 38-year-old woman was returning home from the store late one evening and was sexually assaulted. When she's brought to the emergency department, she's crying. Which of the following concerns for this client should be the nurse's first priority?

a. Filing a police report
b. Calling the client's family
c. Encouraging the client to enroll in a self-defense class
d. Remaining with the client and assisting her through the crisis

80. Which of the following therapies may be used with a client who admits to frottage?

a. Electroconvulsive therapy
b. Relaxation therapy
c. Administration of psychotic agents
d. Positive reinforcement and group therapy

81. When working with a client with paraphiliac disorder, which of the following goals is appropriate for the client?

a. To attend all meetings on the unit
b. To use triggers to initiate sexual behaviors
c. To inform his employer of the reason for hospitalization
d. To verbalize appropriate methods to meet sexual upon discharge

82. When assessing rooms for clients, the nurse should not place which of the following clients with a client who has a diagnosis of sexual sadism?

a. A client with a diagnosis of sexual masochism
b. A client with a diagnosis of voyeurism
c. A client who's an exhibitionist
d. A client who's a homosexual

83. The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client when he states he has been diagnosed with voyeurism. The nurse knows which of the following actions is characteristic of a voyeur?

a. Observing others while they disrobe
b. Wearing clothing of the opposite sex
c. Rubbing against a no consenting person
d. Using rubber sheeting for sexual arousal

84. Which of the following definitions best describes necrophilia?

a. Obscene phone calling
b. Sexual activity with animals
c. Sexual activity with corpses
d. Sexual arousal by contact with urine

85. A study describing the evaluation of aseptjc technique would be which type of study?

a. Longitudinal
b. Descriptive
c. Historical
d Evaluation

86. If a bill has been approved by the joint conference Committee of Congress, This means that:

a. The bill is now a law
b. The bill will be sent to the President of the Philippines
c. The bill will be discussed by the senators and the congressman, for its merit
d. The bill will be print out and distributed

87. A 39-year-ofd mate wishes to undergo a sex-reassignment operation, because 'he feels trapped in his male body. Which of the following actions is the next step the client should take if he wants to have the operations?

a. Tell his family and friends
b. Attend psychotherapy
c. Visit transsexual bars
d. See a surgeon

88. A 35-year-old male who has been married-for 10 years arrives in the psychiatric clinic stating, "I can't live this lie any more. I wish I were a woman, I don't want my wife. I need a man." Which of the following initial actions would be most appropriate from the nurse?

a. Call the primary health care provider.
b. Encourage the client to speak to his wife.
c. Have the client admitted.
d. Sit down with the client, and talk about his feelings.

89 A female client enjoys wearing men's clothing. Her sister tells the nurse that the client wishes a sexual reassignment operation. The client tells the nurse she just wants to be left. Which of the following initial nursing interventions is most appropriate?

a. Allow the client to deal with her sister.
b. Encourage the client to verbalize her feelings.
c. Tell the client's sister to mind her own business.
d. Encourage the client to continue doing what is comfortable for her.

90. A male client brings a list of his prescribed medications to the clinic. During the initial assessment, he tells the nurse that he has been experiencing delayed ejaculation. Which drug class is associated with this problem?

a. Anticoagulants
b. Antibiotics
c. Antihypertensive
d. Steroids

91. A client in a psychiatric unit has been identified as peeping Tom. What's the medical term for the client's disorder?

a. Voyeurism
b. Gender identity disorder
c. Pedophilia
d. Fetishism

92. Mrs. Peralta was also issued a professional license by the Professional Regulation Commision. It is a:

1. A permanent right
2. A vested interest
3. A legal right
4. A privilege
5. Means to protect society and promote general welfare

a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 3,4,5
d. 1,3,4

93. Nursing Resolution concerning with 1.V. Training Program:

a. N. R. #1955 Series 1989
b. N. R.# 557 Series 1988
c. N. R. #08 Series 1994
d. N. R. # 633 Series 1984

94. The devise or technique an investigator employs to collect data is called:

a. Sample
b. Instrument
c. Hypothesis
d. Concept

95. Being an I. V. Licensed Nurse, it is renewed?

a. every 2 years
b. every 6 months
c. it depends
d. no renewal at all

96. A nurse lawyer provides an education session to the nursing staff regarding client's rights. A staff nurse asks the lawyer to describe an example that might relate to invasion of client privacy. Which of the following indicates a violation of the right?

a. Taking photographs of the client without consent
b. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital
c. Threatening to place the client in restraints
d. Performing a surgical procedure without consent

97. If found to be telling the truth, the nurse may be released right away. The fact That morphine sulfate was meant to be given to a relative as prescribed by a licensed physician considered to be a

a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating

98. Example of intentional torts includes:
a. malpractice and assault
b. malpractice and negligence
c. false imprisonment and battery
d. negligence and invasion of privacy

99. In a certain hospital whenever there are patients in the recovery room, 2 nurses are usually present. The hospital policy expects the nurses to take their breaks before patients arrive from surgery. On this particular day, there are 2 nurses on duty and 2 patients in the recovery room who have had minor surgeries performed that morning. One nurse had not had a coffee break that morning. The nurse should:

a. Stay because hospital policy expects there to be two nurses in attendance while there are patients in the recovery room.
b. Leave for coffee break because there are only 2 patients in the recovery room and one nurse can handle 2 patients quite easily.
c. Talk with the nursing supervisor and secure permission from him/her.
d. Leave to get coffee and come right back.

100. A client with anorexia nervosa has started taking flouxetine hydrochloride (Prozac). Which of the following adverse reactions complicates the treatment of this eating disorder?

a. Drowsiness
b. Dry mouth
c. Light-headedness
d. Nausea

Nursing Local Examination Booklet 3, 100 Practice Questions

Situation 1: An understanding of the usefulness of scientific finding is more and more essential for quality nursing practice.

1. You decided to do a review of literature. The most important reason for doing so
is to:

a. improve your library reading skills
b. get ideas on interpretation of findings
c. formulate a conceptual framework for the study
d. decide on a sampling method

2. The sampling method where each member of the study population has an equal chance to be selected as a subject is called :

a. purposive sampling
b. selective sampling
c. random sampling
d. convenient sampling

3. The study population where you will select your study subjects is referred to as the:

a. research subjects
b. study group
c. population
d. universe

4. Which part of the study relates to validity and reliability criteria?

a. Hypothesis
b. Methodology
c. Variables
d. Instrument

Situation 2: Mr. Tinio, a cardiovascular patient has been hospitalized for 4 months and his doctor has ordered for discharge. -

5. Mr. Tinio appears anxious about numerous aspects of his home care. The best response you would give is:

a. explore with him his fears and allow him to verbalize feelings
b. advice him to take all his medication regularly
c. explain why he has to have certain activity limitation
d. let him express his feelings to reduce his anxiety

6. An immediate need for Mr. Tinio is:

a. reduce anxiety
b. more independent in outlook
c. security and comfort
d. conserve energy

7. Cardiac rehabilitation programs in the acute stage aids the person in:

a. reaching an activity level required for self-care
b. preventing further complications
c. plan his activity of living
d. acceptance of his condition

8. Cardiac rehabilitation goals in long-term, restore individual to optimum health and:

a. prevent health complaints
b. slow down progress of disease
c. another myocardiac infarction attack
d. avoid exposure to infection

9. The greatest effect on his home recovery will be his:

a. expectation to go back to work
b. dietary needs to be well
c. family’s emotional support
d. understanding of the cause d: his illness

Situation 3: A survey of first year students in your school showed that about 40% do not eat breakfast before coming to school. •

10. The most appropriate research design for the study is:
a. Descriptive
b. Retrospective
c. ex post facto
d. quasi-experimental

11. If you decide to study the relationship of eating breakfast and performance in class, which would be the independent variable?
a. Student's characteristic
b. Meal patterns
c. Performance in class
d. Eating breakfast

12. The most appropriate statement of your hypothesis is:

a. There is a positive correlation between eating habits class performance
b. There is a relationship between eating breakfast and performance in class
c. Performance in class is more likely to be affected when eating breakfast
d. Performance in class is associated with eating breakfast

Situation 4: Mrs. Alcantara, a 56 years old cardiovascular patient has edema of the lower limits. You suspect some electrolyte imbalance.

13. These are signs of fluid volume excess Except:

a. weight gain
b. ollguria
c. neck vein distention
d. edema

14. Which is the main excretory organ for regulation of fluid electrolyte balance?

a. Kidneys
b. gastro intestinal tract
c. lungs
d. skin

15-Which is the best way to assess degree of edema?

a. skin indentation when pressed my finger
b. comparing present with previous weight
c. pinching a fold of skin
d. measuring intake and output

Situation 5: Mrs. B. Santos, 5 years married; postponed pregnancy to save money. She visits her physician because complaints of increasing pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia from a series of diagnostic evaluations the physician ruled out in endometriosis.

16. Endometriosis is best described as:

a. a defect in the endometrial lining
b. a major cause of primary dysmenorrhea
c. a pathological condition due to abnormal proliferation of uterine lining
d. the growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus

17. The criteria used to confirm a diagnosis of endometriosis is:

a. laparoscopy and biopsy results
b. laboratory findings
c. result of endometrial biopsy ,
d. family's health

18. The physician prescribes danazol (Danocrine, for Mrs. B. Santos). The nurse anticipates the needed health teaching when she tells her that while taking this drug, she can expect to experience all of the following except:

a. diminished menstrual flew
b. edema and increase in weight
c. menses stops
d. anovulation

19. In order to get the most accurate reading the nurse Informs Mrs. B. Santos to take her BBT:

a. within half and hour after rising
b. immediately before rising
c. before going to bed in the evening
d. at the same time every day immediately after awakening and before rising

Situation 6: Justice Yu is scheduled for cholecystectomy in the morning.

20. From the recovery room he was brought back to the ward with nasogastric tube, the rationale for his having NGT is to:

a. prevent abdominal distention
b. prevent nausea and vomiting
c. promote hydration .
d. promote drainage

21. Post operative order is NPO. You will tell him that feeding begin as soon as:

a. abdominal spasm
b. peristalsis returns
c. forty-eight hours is over
d. absence of bowel sound is appreciated

22. Which of these is not likely to happen as his post operative complication:

a. Pancreatitis
b. post operative jaundice
c. bile leakage
d. ventricular hypertrophy

23. The rationale of your supervising properly how he does the coughing exercise is to prevent him from developing:

a. Bronchlectasis
b. Bronchopneumonia
c. atelectasis
d. pneumonia

Situation 7: Mrs. Cayetano is brought to the emergency room complaining of chest pain, perspiring profusely and breathing rapidly. .

24. Upon admission, Mrs. Cayetano is screaming, saying " I'm dying. I can't breathe." The nurse therapeutically says;

a. "Why are you saying that?"
b. "You are not dying. Let me help you."
c. "You are very upset. Let me help you."
d. "We are here to help you."

25. Mrs. Cayetano is experiencing what level of anxiety:

a. moderate
b. mild
c. severe
d. panic

26. A minor tranquilizer to relieve Mrs. Cayetano's anxiety is ordered because this medication:

a. causes fewer undesirable side effects
b. does not impair intellectual activity
c. induces sleep easily
d. is excreted from the body more rapidly

27 An example of minor tranquilizer is:

a. Amitryptyline (Elavil)
b. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
c. Diazepam (Valium)
d. Imipramine Hcl (Trofranil)

28. Upon discharge to evaluate Mrs. Cayetano's progress, this important factor should be considered:

a. recognizes the need of describing situations proceeding her feeling of anxiety
b. can change her method of handling anxiety
c. understand the rationale for taking the prescribed medication
d. knows the reason for tier feelings of anxiety

Situation 8: Mercedes is admitted with acute depression. Assessment data revealed that she was terminated from her job as a secretary two (2) months ago.

29. In the initial nurse-client interaction. Mercedes says to the nurse "! am a worthless person I should be dead," The nurse appropriately responds by sayings

a. "Don’t says that, you are not a worthless person."
b. "We are trying to help you with your feelings."
c. "What make you feet worthless?" It: must be awful to feel that way"
d. "What you are feeling is part of your illness." It will lessen as you get better."

30. The therapeutic environment for a depressed client is one which

a. allows her to verbalize her feelings
b. pays particular attention to her physical needs
c. provide opportunity for interacting with others
d. allows freedom to select her own daily activities

31. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:

a. sensory-perceptual a!teration
b. impaired adjustment
c altered thought process
d. self esteem disturbance

32. MAO inhibitor anti depressant drug was ordered. This is:

a. Diazapam (Vallium)
b. Imipramine HCL (Trofanil)
c: Phenelzine sulfate (Nardil)
d. Amitryptyline (Elavil)

33 Mercedes is being prepared for discharge. The nurse instructs tier husband to observe signs of depression. The following behaviors indicate recurrence of depression. Except:

a. Grandiosity
b. Insomnia
c. psychomotor retardation
d. feeling of hopelessness

Situation 9: during the past two years, Aling Maring , age 70, manifested progressive memory impairment and confusion.

34. Initial nursing diagnosis would be:

a. impaired adjustment
b. altered thought process
c. disturbance in self esteem
d. impaired social interaction

35.Aling Maring makes up stories about events she can not recall because it:

a. reduces feeling of isolation
b. maintains her self esteem
c. reduces her feelings of frustration
d. increases her feeling of security

36. She is observed to be repeating the same word oyer and over again. This symptom is known as:

a. Aphasia
b. Apraxia
c. perseveration
d. confabulation

Situation 10: A 29 year old assistant manager of a prestigious bank, Anna, has been suffering from peptic ulcer for one year.

37. In caring of patients with psychophysiology disorders, the nurse knows that:

a. Psycho physiologic disorders are not usually a medical emergency
b. The relief of physical symptoms will help resolve the psychological problems
c. There are no pathological findings that would cause the symptoms
d. Psychological stress can precipitate physical disorders

38. Because of limited coping skills in dealing with anxiety, the nurse identifies this nursing diagnosis:

a. impaired adjustment
b. social isolation
c. impaired social interaction
d. ineffective individual coping

39. On admission, the nurse priorities one of the following nursing intervention:

a. Help Anna socialize with other patients
b. Help Anna perform activities of daily living
c. Alleviate physical symptoms
d. Help Anna identify situations which increase anxiety

40. Primary gain In Illness refers to:

a. Feeling of indifference to the distressing symptom
b. Use of symptom to decrease anxiety
c. Interpersonal benefits the patient derives from illness
d. Increased ability to cope with anxiety in the future

Situation 11: A teacher, Flora, 52 years old, with severe depression was admitted to the hospital. Her past history regaled she had suicidal ideation and has expressed feelings of helplessness.

41. One of the following statements is true with regard to the care of a depressed patient like Flora:

a. ail depressed clients are potentially suicidal
b. most suicidal persons give no warning
c only rnentally ill persons commit suicide
d. the chance of suicide decreases as depression lessen

42. Patients with severe depression, uses this defense mechanism:

a. Projection
b. repression
c. Introjection
d. suppression

43. During the initial stage of hospitalization, the most appropriate nursing intervention in planning activities for Flora is:

a. allow her to cheese what she wants to do each day
b. provide daily schedule of activities for her to follow
c. observe for signs which will indicate her willingness to participate in any activity
d. schedule one's activity per day to give her time to rest

44. One morning Flora says to the nurse. "Go away and leave me alone. All I want is rest." The nurse response therapeutically when she replies:

a. "Since you say you are tired, I'll check you later."
b. "I am going to stay with you for a while."
c. "When would you like me to return."
d. "Why do you want me to leave."

45. Flora is being prepared for discharge. However, she says "I am afraid to go home, no one wants to live with me." One of the following would be the appropriate nursing intervention;

a. involve the family in planning for discharge of Flora
b. accept her appraisal of the situation and explore their alternatives
c. discourage her from thinking that no one wants to live with her
d. encourage her to discuss discharge plans her family

Situation 12: Millie R., ages 74, was recently admitted to a nursing home because of confusion, disorientation, and negativistic behavior. Her family states that Millie is in good health.

46. Millie asks you," Where am I?" The best response of the nurse to make is

a. "Don't worry, Millie. You're safe here."
b. "Where do you think you are?"
c. What did your family tell you?"
d. "You're at the community nursing home."

47. Which at the following would be an appropriate strategy in reorienting a confused client to where her room is?

a. Race pictures of her family on the bedside stand
b. Put her name in large letters on her forehead
c. Remind the client where her room is
d. Let the ether residents knew where the client's roan is

48. Which activity would you engage Millie in at the nursing home?

a. reminiscence group
b. sing-along
c. discussion group
d. exercise class

49. Millie has had difficulty sleeping since admission. Which of the following would be the best intervention?

a. Provide her with a glass of warm milk
b. Ask the physician for a mid sedative
c. Do net allow Millie to take naps during the day
d. Ask her family what they prefer

50.Millie R. has self-care deficit. She has difficulty herself. The best action for the nurse to take is to

a. have the client to wear hospital gowns
b. explain to the client why he should dress herself
c. give the client step-by-step instructions for dressing herself
d. allow enough time for the client to dress herself.

Situation 13: Ronald, 23 years old, was voluntarily admitted to the inpatient unit with a
diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.

51. AS the nurse approaches Ronald he says, "If you come any closer, I die." This is an example of:

a. Hallucination
b. Delusion
c. illusion
d. idea of reference

52. The best response for the nurse to make to this behavior is:
a. How can I hurt you?
b. I'm the nurse
c. Tell me more about this
d. That's a silly thing to say

53. Ronald is pacing the halls and is agitated. The nurse hears him saying, "I have to get away from those doctors! They are trying to commit me to the state hospital". The nurse's continued assessment should include

a. clarifying information with the doctor
b. observing Ronald for rising anxiety
c. renewing history of involuntarily commitment
d. checking dosage of prescribed medication

Situation 14: Mr. K, 24 years old, was admitted on a voluntary basis to psychiatric services, He had agreed to inpatient care as an alternative to a 30 day jail sentence fro reckless driving, driving under the influence of alcohol and over speeding. He has been under psychiatric care for three years, has a long history of petty crimes, and was able with help of his therapist, to convince the judge that a higher level of psychiatric care would be in everyone's best interest,

54. When a scheduled group therapy session in announcement, he refuses to go and the nurse has to resort inn pleading with him to attend. He uses ether client to his own needs and often pioneers causes that are disruptive to the milieu. The diagnostic title that best describes Mr. Ks behavior is

a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Passive-aggressive personality disorder
d. Passive-dependent personality disorder

55. In planning care for Mr. K it is important for the nurse to recognize that all of the following are likely to occur except

a. staff and client agree when setting treatment goals
b. staff and client are consonant struggle for control of the milieu
c. staff and client feel threatened by one another
d. staff and client use the same defense mechanism when interacting

56. Key intervention for a client with an antisocial personality disorder include all of the following except:

a. assisting him to identity and clarify his feelings
b. changing staff assigned to Mr. K at his request
c. making expectations about his behavior dear as well as consequences for same.
d Setting firm limit with clear consequences

57. At the time of discharge the nurse understands that Mr. K is most likely to:

a. be committed to another facility for a longer length of stay
b. be committed to a virtuous and socially acceptable life-style
c. discontinue treatment with the outpatient therapist
d. revert to pre hospitalization behaviors

Situation 15: Tammy, 18 months old, has been admitted for second degree burns surroundings the genital area. Her mother told the nurse that Tammy grabbed the hot coffee cup and spilled it on herself.

58. The nurse is required by law to

a. testify in court on the injuries.
b. Reports suspected child abuse
c. Have the mother arrested
d. Refer the mother to counseling

59. Tammy’s mother is 17 years old, in which of the areas would the nurse provide health teaching?

a. Normal growth and development
b. Bonding techniques
c. How to childproof the apartment
d. Parenting skills

Situation 16:.Annie, a 4th year BSN student will have their duty in psychiatric hospital, She is reviewing her notes about: Nurses -Client relationship/Therapeutic Communication

60. Trust may develop in the nurse -client relationship when the nurse

a. avoid limit setting
b. encourage the client to use "testing" behaviors
c. tell the clients how he should behave
d. Uses consistency in approaching the client.

61. A client has just begun, to discuss important feelings when the time of the interview is up. The next day, when the nurse meets with the client the agreed-upon time, the initial intervention would be to say

a. "Good morning; how are you today?"
b. "Yesterday you were talking about some very important feelings. Let's continue."
c. "What would you like to talk about today?"
d. Nothing and wait for the client to introduce the topic.

62. A new staff is on orientation tour with the head nurse. A client approaches her and says, "I don't belong here. Please try to get me out." The staff nurse's response would be.

a. “What would you do if you were out of the hospital?"
b. "I am a new staff member, and I'm on a tour. I'll come back and talk with you."
c. "1 think you should talk with the head nurse about that."
d. "I can't do anything about that."

63. The nurse is in the day room with the group of the client who has been quietly watching TV suddenly jumps up screaming and runs out of the room. The nurse's priority intervention would be to

a. Turn off the TV and ask the group what they think about the client's behavior
b. Follow after the client to see what has happened.
c. ignore the incident because these outbreak are frequent,
d. Send another client out of the room to check on tile agitated client.

64. A nurse observes the client sitting alone in her room crying. As the nurse approaches her, the client states, "I'm feeling sad- S don't want to talk now." The nurse's best response would be

a. "lt will help you feel better if you talk about it."
b. "I’ll come back when you feel like talking."
c. "Ill stay with you a few minutes."
d. "Sometimes it helps to talk." •

Situation 16: Defense mechanisms are used by individuals, in order to cope with anxiety and stress in life. The following questions refer to anxiety and stress disorders/defense mechanisms.

65. A student failed her psychology final exam and spent the entire evening berating the teacher and the course. This behavior would be an example of which defense mechanisms?

a. reaction-formation
b. Compensation
c. Projection
d. Acting out

66. The most effective nursing intervention for a severely anxious client who is pacing vigorously would be to

a. instruct her to sit down and quit pacing
b. place her In bed to reduce stimuli and allow rest
c. allow tier to walk unit she becomes physically tired
d. give her PRN medication and walk with her at a gradual slewing pace

67. A client is experiencing high degree or anxiety. It is important to recognize if additional help is required because

a. if the client is out of control, another person will help to decrease his anxiety level.
b. Being alone with an anxious client is dangerous.
c. It will take another person to direct the client into activities to relieve anxiety.
d. Hospital protocol for handing anxious clients requires at least two people.

68. A client with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder constantly does repetitive cleaning. The nurse knows that this behavior is probably most basically an attempt to:

a. decrease anxiety to tolerate level
b. focus attention on non threatening task
c. control others
d. decrease, the time available for interaction with people.

69. A client is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder following a rape by an unknown assailant. One of the primary goals of nursing care for this client would be to;

a. Establish safe, supportive environment
b. Control aggressive behavior
c. Deal with the client's anxiety
d. Discuss client's nightmare and reactions.

70. A client's deafness has been diagnosed as convention disorder. Nursing intervention should be guided by which one of the following?

a. The client will probably express much anxiety about her deafness and require much reassurance.
b. The client will have little or no awareness of the psychogenic cause of her deafness.
c. Tile client's need for the symptom should be respected; thus, secondary gains should be allowed.
d. The defense mechanisms of suppression and rationalization are involved in creating symptom.

71. A female client has just received the diagnosis of hypochondriasis. This client continually focuses on gastrointestinal problems and constantly rings for a nurse to meet her every demand. The best nursing approach is to

a. ignore the demands because the nurse knows it is net necessary to respond.
b. Assign various staff members to work with the client so no staff member will become negative.
c. Anticipate the client's demands and spend them with her even though she does not demand it.
d. Provide for the client's basic needs, but do not respond her every demand, which reinforces secondary gains.

72. Person with personality disorders are known to be manipulators. Which principles is it important for the nurse to Know in planning the care of a person, with this diagnosis?

a. The nurse should allow manipulation so as to not raise the client's anxiety
b. The nurse should appeal to the client's sense of loyalty in adhering to the rules of the community.
c. When the client's manipulations are not successful, anxiety will increase.
d. The establishment of a nurse-client relationship will decrease the client's manipulations.

73. A mate client on the psychiatric unit becomes upset and breaks a chair when a visitor does not show up. The first nursing intervention should be to"

a. Say with the client during the stressful time.
b. Ask direct questions about the client's behavior
c. Set limits and restrict client's behavior
d. Ran with the client on hew he can better handle frustration.

74. The nurse has been interviewing the client who ha snot been able to discuss any feelings. This day, 5 minutes before the time is over, the client begins to talk about important feelings. The intervention is to

a. Go over the agreed-upon time, as the client is finally able to discuss important feelings.
b. Tell client that is time to end the session now, but another nurse will discuss his feelings with him.
c. Set an extra meeting time a little later to discuss these feelings.
d. Bid just as agreed, but tell the client these are very important feelings and he can continue tomorrow.

Situation 17: A 60-year old client complains of headaches, restlessness and insomnia. During an interview, the nurse Seams that the symptoms began 3 months ago after the client was forced into early retirement.

75. The nurse recognizes that the client is probably experiencing:

a. A social crisis
b. A situational crisis
c. An economic crisis
d. A development crisis

76. According to crisis theory, the minimal long term goal in crisis intervention is:

a. Relief of acute symptoms
b. Relief of panic-level anxiety .
c. Restoration of the origins functioning level
d. Reorganization and reordering of the personality

77. The most critical factor for tine nurse to determine during crisis intervention is the client's:

a. developmental history
b. available situational supports
c. underlying unconscious conflict
d. willingness to restructure the personality

78. When Interviewing in a crisis situation, the initial concern of the nurse is:

a. What was the precipitating factor?
b. How is the individual affecting others?
c. How will the client deal with successive crisis
d. Whether the individual can go back to daily activities

Situation 17: Ms. Zepetee is a client with a history of abuse of multiple drugs.

79. When planning care for her. The nurse should be aware that the most serious life-threatening symptoms during withdrawal usually result from:

a. heroin
b. methadone
c. barbiturates
d. amphetamines

80. With a tentative diagnosis of opiate addiction, the nurse should assess this recently hospitalize client for signs of opiate withdrawal. These signs would include:

a. lacrimation vomiting, drowsiness
b. nausea, dilated pupils, constipation
c. muscle aches, papillary constriction, yawning
d. rhino rhea, convulsions, abnormal temperature

81. The nurse aware that opiates are most commonly used because the individual.

a. desire to become independent
b. wants to fit In with the peer group
c. attempts to blur reality and reduce stress
d. enjoys the social interrelationship that occur

82. Ms. Zepetee is treated for multiple stab wounds to the abdomen. After surgical repair the nurse notes that the client's pain does not seem to be relieved by the prescribed IM mepericline hydrochloride. The nurse recognizes that the failure to achieve pain relief from indicates that she is probably experiencing the phenomenon of:

a. tolerance
b. habituation
c. physical addiction
d. psychologic

83. After a visit from several friends the nurse finds a client with a known history of opiate addiction in a deep sleep and unresponsive to attempts at arousal The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and would evaluate that an overdose of opiates had occurred if the findings showed a:

a. blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg, pulse of 120- and respirations of 10
b. blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 84, and respirations of 20
c. blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, a pulse of 76, and respirations of 28.
d. blood pressure of 180/100 mm Mg, a pulse of 72, and respirations of 18

84. At a staff meeting the question of a staff nurse returning to work after a dug rehabilitation program Is discussed. The nursing supervisor helps the staff to decide that the most therapeutic way to handle the nurse's return would be to:

a. Offer the nurse support In a. direct, straightforward manner
b. Avoid mentioning the problem unless the nurse brings up the topic
c. Assigns another staff member to keep the nurse under dose observation
d. Make certain the nurse is assigned to administer only non-narcotic medications.

85. Addicted clients commonly expect prejudice and hostility from psychiatric personnel. The nurse can best overcome their expectation by using:

a. acceptance and consistency In the approach
b. reassurance that nonjudgmental attitudes exists
c. self-disclosure to promote a therapeutic relationship
d. confrontation of these judgmental attitudes is'' the client

86. A client with a long history to alcohol abuse is placed on a diet in vitamin B1 (Thiamine). "The nurse would know that the diet is understood when the client states" I will select something for each meal from among:

a. Fish, aged cheese, and breads
b. Poultry, milk products, and eggs
c. Lean pork, organ meat, and nuts
d. "Leafy and green vegetables and citrus fruits." '

87. The nurse is aware that tile reason some alcoholics are unable to stop drinking even though they begin to attend AA meetings is that they:

a enjoy the feeling caused by drinking alcohol
b. physiologically require the substance in their body
c. are trying to drastically stop after a long-standing habit
d. often have a character direct that defeats their will power

Situation 18: ethical and legal responsibilities are part of your nursing practices

88. Which of the following statements is true?

a. ethics prescribed what are right and wrong conduct
b. ethics and morals are synonymous
c. morals as human conduct is also a legal rights
d. an unethical act is immoral

89. The Code for Nurse best describes:

a. rules that protect public interest and welfare
b. principles of conduct becoming a nurse
c. right ways of giving nursing care
d. society's norm in the practice of nursing

90. When you start the practice of professional nursing you assume "ipso facto" obligations to uphold the noble traditions of the professions. You are expected to:

a. earn a living
b. safeguard public health
c. abide by the law
d. fulfill your civic duties

91. The scope of nursing practice based on RA 7164 the following responsibilities. EXCEPT:

a. interpreting results of sensitivity test
b. initiating "code blue"
c. suturing laceration
d. care of women during pregnancy, labor and delivery

92. To develop independence of families in health, which of the following is the best approach?

a. family education for life
b. family empowerment
e. family health work
d. family health organization

Situation 19: You often do not finish your nursing work on the time for shift endorsement

93. This is an indicator of effective use of your time:

a. Keeping a time schedule
b. using a log book
c. checking Kardex cards
d. reading ward

94. What evidence will indicate your effective use of time?

a. doctor's bill have been issued
b. charting completed on time
c. all serious patients have been cared
d. patient's bills forwarded to billing office

95. You knew that in practice effective use of time is good management. Which of the following measures would be most helpful in keeping tract of work time?

a. keep a log for the day
b. plan your work activities
c. do a time analysis
d. request health in your work

96. Which of the following would you first do?

a. organize activities by priority
b. ask an attendant to help you
c. attend first to patients without watchers
d. none of the above

97. Research contributes to the acknowledge-based on professional nursing. Which of the following, statement in the improvement is TRUE?

a. research seeks the unknown
b. research resolve a problem
c. research studies the world of reality
d. research relies on observable evidence

98. When you participate in nursing research your main activity is to:

a. develop problem solving skills
b. explain a nursing phenomenon
c. solve a nursing problem
d. understand man as human being

99. This type of research that attempts to solve practical nursing problems.

a. clinical-problem research
b. basic research
c. applied research
d. quasi-experimental research

100. The most import art value of research to practicing nurse is:

a. it improve clinical competence
b. it develops analytical skills
c. it contribute to new knowledge
d. it demonstrate professionalism